In Helaman 3:31 we find that in the forty-ninth year, "there was continual rejoicing in the land of Zarahemla, and in all the regions round about, even in all the land which was possessed by the Nephites." This phrase seems to imply that the Nephites "possessed" much more area than the land of Zarahemla. Does the word "possessed" mean politically controlled? or overwhelmingly occupied? Did the Nephites politically control or overwhelmingly occupy the land northward? [Alan C. Miner, Personal Notes]